Dr Kynes
Well-Known Member
the above is 100% false, because it is based upon the assumption that the serf was NOT chattel, when in fact the serf was PART OF THE PROPERTY, just as the trees, fields, structures, and geographical features were.You're an idiot Kynes. You're so stuck in a false dichotomy, that when presented with new information which renders your views stupid, you decry deceiver.
Serfs were not chattel, therefore it was voluntary.
That is a completely true statement, yet you can not reconcile this with what you believe voluntary to mean. Surely there exists societal factors which goad people to accept serfdom, therefore according to you, it can not be voluntary. It is not deception when I make a point, knowing full well that you will disagree because of what you think a word means. In this case, voluntary.
So why is it that the serfs volunteered their service to the lords?
The answer is simple Kynes, it is because the only difference between the serfs and lords, was property. The lords had property and the serfs did not. The lords owned the land which sustained them all. This is a sufficient goad to coerce a man into voluntary serfdom.
Again Kynes, serfs were not chattel. I have to be a broken record with you, because you're stupid.
serfs were LESS than livestock, since the sale of a property did not automatically include the chickens, goats, sheep and cattle, but it DID include the serfs.
serfs were a physical resource, bound to the land as permanently as the cottages in which they dwelt.
pretending otherwise, despite the evidence to the contrary makes your incorrectness into WILLFUL IGNORANCE, and restating that which you now know is wrong, is a LIE.