In the first instance, when FDR (the thug) ordered people into camps and acted as if he owned their property, it should never have happened, since FDR was applying a form of offensive force. FDR never had the valid right to determine the use of OTHER peoples property etc. only they do / did.
In the second instance, while I have a dislike for racists and prefer it didn't happen, as long as a racist is attempting to control HIS property and not attempting to control another persons property, I can't see how the racists behavior is a form of offensive force.
The person insisting (under threat of using force) the racist use his property and body to serve them, is acting as if THEY own the property and not the racist. Just like FDR did eh?
Do you believe that in the first instance, it's wrong for the racist FDR to abuse other persons property and then in the second instance it's okay for other people to abuse the racists right to control his own property? If so, you are advocating two opposing things at once.