EU Boycotts Israel

Jimdamick

Well-Known Member
Well, not exactly a boycott, but starting October 1, products manufactured in the disputed land areas in Israel, such as Gaza, the West Bank and the Golan, will have to labeled as such. In other words, almost 40% of the agriculture products sold in EC countries by Israel would be labeled with this distinction, not counting non-agriculture products, such as SodaStream. This has led to a statement by PM Netanyahu, that this action harks back to Germany in the 1930's, with the requirement that Jews had to wear a yellow Star of David, and reeks of anti-Semitism.
Call me an anti-Semite, but if the BDS movement is anti-Semitic ( the Jew's think they are the only Semites), count me in, in the sense that it has more to do with fairness in my opinion.. I personally am sick of the fact that every critic of Israel is tossed back by Israel and Netanyahu specifically, as you only hate Jews, and that is why these actions are implemented. (LMFAO)
Anyway, the point is this
1 - Is the labeling a good thing (why)
2 - Is the labeling a bad thing (why)
3 - Is it anti-Semitic (why or why not)


PS- Netanyahu just went to Russia this week by the way apparently, as reported in the Jerusalem Post, because he felt the US could not be trusted 100% to protect Israel, and wanted to talk to Putin about events in Syria. Does anyone else see a problem here?
 
Well, not exactly a boycott, but starting October 1, products manufactured in the disputed land areas in Israel, such as Gaza, the West Bank and the Golan, will have to labeled as such. In other words, almost 40% of the agriculture products sold in EC countries by Israel would be labeled with this distinction, not counting non-agriculture products, such as SodaStream. This has led to a statement by PM Netanyahu, that this action harks back to Germany in the 1930's, with the requirement that Jews had to wear a yellow Star of David, and reeks of anti-Semitism.
Call me an anti-Semite, but if the BDS movement is anti-Semitic ( the Jew's think they are the only Semites), count me in, in the sense that it has more to do with fairness in my opinion.. I personally am sick of the fact that every critic of Israel is tossed back by Israel and Netanyahu specifically, as you only hate Jews, and that is why these actions are implemented. (LMFAO)
Anyway, the point is this
1 - Is the labeling a good thing (why)
2 - Is the labeling a bad thing (why)
3 - Is it anti-Semitic (why or why not)


PS- Netanyahu just went to Russia this week by the way apparently, as reported in the Jerusalem Post, because he felt the US could not be trusted 100% to protect Israel, and wanted to talk to Putin about events in Syria. Does anyone else see a problem here?
All products sold here already have to have their country of origin clearly labelled anyways.

No it's not anti-semetic, some of us don't want to eat vegetables with Palestinian blood on it.
 
Personally I'd like to know the origin of any product I buy.
There has been pissed off beef from many countries who are allies.
There has been melamine in baby formula from China.

I like to avoid buying products from places who are known to have less than acceptable safety practices and screening.

I really don't care who they are, if they make shitty products I should be given the knowledge upfront so I can choose to buy something different.
 
Gotta love Arabs in Israel left over from a bygone empire claiming discrimination under the banner of a country that has never existed.
 
Well, not exactly a boycott, but starting October 1, products manufactured in the disputed land areas in Israel, such as Gaza, the West Bank and the Golan, will have to labeled as such. In other words, almost 40% of the agriculture products sold in EC countries by Israel would be labeled with this distinction, not counting non-agriculture products, such as SodaStream. This has led to a statement by PM Netanyahu, that this action harks back to Germany in the 1930's, with the requirement that Jews had to wear a yellow Star of David, and reeks of anti-Semitism.
Call me an anti-Semite, but if the BDS movement is anti-Semitic ( the Jew's think they are the only Semites), count me in, in the sense that it has more to do with fairness in my opinion.. I personally am sick of the fact that every critic of Israel is tossed back by Israel and Netanyahu specifically, as you only hate Jews, and that is why these actions are implemented. (LMFAO)
Anyway, the point is this
1 - Is the labeling a good thing (why)
2 - Is the labeling a bad thing (why)
3 - Is it anti-Semitic (why or why not)


PS- Netanyahu just went to Russia this week by the way apparently, as reported in the Jerusalem Post, because he felt the US could not be trusted 100% to protect Israel, and wanted to talk to Putin about events in Syria. Does anyone else see a problem here?

about fucking time!..when you wiki cock-sucker..netanyahu's pic appears..any port in a storm.
 
Gotta love Arabs in Israel left over from a bygone empire claiming discrimination under the banner of a country that has never existed.
Israel as a nation never existed until 1948. That area of land was called Palestine for over 3000 years, well before the Land of Israel was used to describe a section of that area for a relativity short period of time. After the Crusades were over, the greatest influence was Christian, then Muslim. It wasn't until the Balfour Document in 1917, that Jews began to return to Palestine, as the area was called at that time. It wasn't until May, 1948 that the name Israel was once again used to describe a very small section of that region.

The name "Palaestina" is believed to be a Greek cognate of Philistia, referring to the Philistines, though it could also be derived from thePelasgians, an Aegean people identified with the Philistines. The first clear use of the term Palestine to refer to the entire area betweenPhoeniciaandEgyptwas in 5th century BCAncient Greece,[8][9]whenHerodotuswrote of a "district of Syria, calledPalaistinê" inThe Histories, which included theJudean mountainsand theJordan Rift Valley.[8][10][11][12][13][14]In the treatiseMeteorologyc.340 BCE,Aristotlewrote, "there is a lake in Palestine".[15][16][17][18]This is understood by scholars to be a reference to theDead Sea.[19]Later Greek writers such asPolemonandPausaniasalso used the word, which was followed by Roman writers such asOvid,Tibullus,Pomponius Mela,Pliny the Elder,Dio Chrysostom,Statius,Plutarchas well as Roman Judean writersPhilo of AlexandriaandJosephus.[20]Other writers, such asStrabo, referred to the region asCoele-Syria[a]("all Syria") around 10-20 CE.[21][22]

In 135 CE, the Greek "Syria Palaestina"was used in naming a new Roman province from the merger of Roman Syria and Roman Judaea after theRoman authoritiescrushed theBar Kokhba Revolt.

During theByzantine periodc.390, the imperial province ofSyria Palaestinawas reorganized into:Palaestina Prima,Palaestina Secunda,[23]andPalaestina Salutaris.[23]Following theMuslim conquest,place namesthat were in use by the Byzantine administration generally continued to be used in Arabic.[4][24]The use of the name "Palestine" became common inEarly Modern English,[25]was used in English and Arabic during theMutasarrifate of Jerusalem. In the 20th century the name was used by the British to refer to "Mandatory Palestine", a mandate from the former Ottoman Empire which had been divided in theSykes–Picot Agreement.[26]The term was later used in the eponymous "State of Palestine".[27]Both incorporated geographic regions from the land commonly known asPalestine, into a new state whose territory was named Palestine.


So, you see Lord Kanti, that area was called Palestine before the Israelites wandered out of the desert after escaping Egypt, and in that case, the Jews are the interlopers, not the Palestinians. After all, they were there 1st.
 
Israel as a nation never existed until 1948. That area of land was called Palestine for over 3000 years, well before the Land of Israel was used to describe a section of that area for a relativity short period of time. After the Crusades were over, the greatest influence was Christian, then Muslim. It wasn't until the Balfour Document in 1917, that Jews began to return to Palestine, as the area was called at that time. It wasn't until May, 1948 that the name Israel was once again used to describe a very small section of that region.

The name "Palaestina" is believed to be a Greek cognate of Philistia, referring to the Philistines, though it could also be derived from thePelasgians, an Aegean people identified with the Philistines. The first clear use of the term Palestine to refer to the entire area betweenPhoeniciaandEgyptwas in 5th century BCAncient Greece,[8][9]whenHerodotuswrote of a "district of Syria, calledPalaistinê" inThe Histories, which included theJudean mountainsand theJordan Rift Valley.[8][10][11][12][13][14]In the treatiseMeteorologyc.340 BCE,Aristotlewrote, "there is a lake in Palestine".[15][16][17][18]This is understood by scholars to be a reference to theDead Sea.[19]Later Greek writers such asPolemonandPausaniasalso used the word, which was followed by Roman writers such asOvid,Tibullus,Pomponius Mela,Pliny the Elder,Dio Chrysostom,Statius,Plutarchas well as Roman Judean writersPhilo of AlexandriaandJosephus.[20]Other writers, such asStrabo, referred to the region asCoele-Syria[a]("all Syria") around 10-20 CE.[21][22]

In 135 CE, the Greek "Syria Palaestina"was used in naming a new Roman province from the merger of Roman Syria and Roman Judaea after theRoman authoritiescrushed theBar Kokhba Revolt.

During theByzantine periodc.390, the imperial province ofSyria Palaestinawas reorganized into:Palaestina Prima,Palaestina Secunda,[23]andPalaestina Salutaris.[23]Following theMuslim conquest,place namesthat were in use by the Byzantine administration generally continued to be used in Arabic.[4][24]The use of the name "Palestine" became common inEarly Modern English,[25]was used in English and Arabic during theMutasarrifate of Jerusalem. In the 20th century the name was used by the British to refer to "Mandatory Palestine", a mandate from the former Ottoman Empire which had been divided in theSykes–Picot Agreement.[26]The term was later used in the eponymous "State of Palestine".[27]Both incorporated geographic regions from the land commonly known asPalestine, into a new state whose territory was named Palestine.

So, you see Lord Kanti, that area was called Palestine before the Israelites wandered out of the desert after escaping Egypt, and in that case, the Jews are the interlopers, not the Palestinians. After all, they were there 1st.

Philistines were from Greece, present day "Palestinians" are from Egypt, Saudi Arabia and Jordan. Before the creation of present day Israel, the country was the Ottoman empire.
 
Israel as a nation never existed until 1948. That area of land was called Palestine for over 3000 years, well before the Land of Israel was used to describe a section of that area for a relativity short period of time. After the Crusades were over, the greatest influence was Christian, then Muslim. It wasn't until the Balfour Document in 1917, that Jews began to return to Palestine, as the area was called at that time. It wasn't until May, 1948 that the name Israel was once again used to describe a very small section of that region.

The name "Palaestina" is believed to be a Greek cognate of Philistia, referring to the Philistines, though it could also be derived from thePelasgians, an Aegean people identified with the Philistines. The first clear use of the term Palestine to refer to the entire area betweenPhoeniciaandEgyptwas in 5th century BCAncient Greece,[8][9]whenHerodotuswrote of a "district of Syria, calledPalaistinê" inThe Histories, which included theJudean mountainsand theJordan Rift Valley.[8][10][11][12][13][14]In the treatiseMeteorologyc.340 BCE,Aristotlewrote, "there is a lake in Palestine".[15][16][17][18]This is understood by scholars to be a reference to theDead Sea.[19]Later Greek writers such asPolemonandPausaniasalso used the word, which was followed by Roman writers such asOvid,Tibullus,Pomponius Mela,Pliny the Elder,Dio Chrysostom,Statius,Plutarchas well as Roman Judean writersPhilo of AlexandriaandJosephus.[20]Other writers, such asStrabo, referred to the region asCoele-Syria[a]("all Syria") around 10-20 CE.[21][22]

In 135 CE, the Greek "Syria Palaestina"was used in naming a new Roman province from the merger of Roman Syria and Roman Judaea after theRoman authoritiescrushed theBar Kokhba Revolt.

During theByzantine periodc.390, the imperial province ofSyria Palaestinawas reorganized into:Palaestina Prima,Palaestina Secunda,[23]andPalaestina Salutaris.[23]Following theMuslim conquest,place namesthat were in use by the Byzantine administration generally continued to be used in Arabic.[4][24]The use of the name "Palestine" became common inEarly Modern English,[25]was used in English and Arabic during theMutasarrifate of Jerusalem. In the 20th century the name was used by the British to refer to "Mandatory Palestine", a mandate from the former Ottoman Empire which had been divided in theSykes–Picot Agreement.[26]The term was later used in the eponymous "State of Palestine".[27]Both incorporated geographic regions from the land commonly known asPalestine, into a new state whose territory was named Palestine.

So, you see Lord Kanti, that area was called Palestine before the Israelites wandered out of the desert after escaping Egypt, and in that case, the Jews are the interlopers, not the Palestinians. After all, they were there 1st.

Hmmmmm kind of touchy subject, and a very complicated one. The state (Westphalian concept) of Israel never existed, but the Kingdom of Judea did, but along those lines one could say that the state of Palestine also never really existed (though the area was more consistently called Palestine than Judea, albeit some people argue that the Romans changed the name from Judea to Palestinia as a punishment to the revolting Jewish population). That's the trouble with the argument. However, yes, you're pretty much correct in everything else. There have been people there, who were not Jewish, but who were Egyptian, Greek, Phoenician, Bedouin, Roman, French, Assyrian, Arab, etc. etc. etc.. Super interesting, and super complicated history of that area in particular from ancient to modern history.

As far as what the EU is doing I think it's fine. People can boycott Israel if they find their practices questionable, and hopefully the harm to the pocketbooks of people back in Israel will make them ask their government to rethink their policies. One of the big things that brought down apartheid in South Africa was the boycott of South African goods. It's unfortunate though that we have AIPAC here in the U.S. and a lot of the right see Israel as "vital" to our foreign policy in the Middle East when some people actually consider our very close, special relationship with Israel as detrimental to our foreign policy in the Middle East (it's both, and depending on the situation goes more one way or the other).

As far as Netanyahu going to Putin over Syria/Iran, Russia just deployed more Pantsir-S1 (SA-22 Greyhound) systems (one of these shot down the Turkish F-4 in 2012) in Syria for the SAA which is completely and utterly useless at fighting ISIS (Russia said that's why they're going to provide air and military support to Assad) because the Pantsir-S1 (SA-22 Greyhound) is short to medium range surface-to-air missile/anti-aircraft artillery system. Unless ISIS somehow gets their hands on cruise missiles or short to medium range ballistic missiles and Russia decided to export their upgraded versions to Assad then it isn't to counter ISIS at all.
 
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Hmmmmm kind of touchy subject, and a very complicated one. The state (Westphalian concept) of Israel never existed, but the Kingdom of Judea did, but along those lines one could say that the state of Palestine also never really existed (though the area was more consistently called Palestine than Judea, albeit some people argue that the Romans changed the name from Judea to Palestinia as a punishment to the revolting Jewish population). That's the trouble with the argument. However, yes, you're pretty much correct in everything else. There have been people there, who were not Jewish, but who were Egyptian, Greek, Phoenician, Bedouin, Roman, French, Assyrian, Arab, etc. etc. etc.. Super interesting, and super complicated history of that area in particular from ancient to modern history.

As far as what the EU is doing I think it's fine. People can boycott Israel if they find their practices questionable, and hopefully the harm to the pocketbooks of people back in Israel will make them ask their government to rethink their policies. One of the big things that brought down apartheid in South Africa was the boycott of South African goods. It's unfortunate though that we have AIPAC here in the U.S. and a lot of the right see Israel as "vital" to our foreign policy in the Middle East when some people actually consider our very close, special relationship with Israel as detrimental to our foreign policy in the Middle East (it's both, and depending on the situation goes more one way or the other).

As far as Netanyahu going to Putin over Syria/Iran, Russia just deployed more Pantsir-S1 (SA-22 Greyhound) systems (one of these shot down the Turkish F-4 in 2012) in Syria for the SAA which is completely and utterly useless at fighting ISIS (Russia said that's why they're going to provide air and military support to Assad) because the Pantsir-S1 (SA-22 Greyhound) is short to medium range surface-to-air missile/anti-aircraft artillery system. Unless ISIS somehow gets their hands on cruise missiles or short to medium range ballistic missiles and Russia decided to export their upgraded versions to Assad then it isn't to counter ISIS at all.
Maybe I'm wrong. But didn't Israel at one time choose who their daddy was going to be and we made the best offer?
 
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