Impossible! The deficit is falling as well as unemployment Obama wrecking economy

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
So the constitution grants the right so who wrote the constitution? You did. You grant your own rights that's the big secret. You keep it in common law by demanding it as remedy...
Did you not bother to read the post? Almost all of the states have extinguished common law marriage. There is legally no such thing in almost all of the states. You keep nothing in common law, you demand no remedy. The right to marriage is based on the Fifth Amendment of the constitution--it has nothing to do with common law. Nothing.

you go into equity to seek financial gain in the form of lower tax payments so using your logic you are a tax protestor screaming you have a "right" to pay lower taxes than 2 singles.....pretty weird I would fail to recognize equity too on purpose for financial gain just as congress does bravo tokeprep see didn't even have to slam cristians or homo's to make that point that's called having grown up discourse big guy no name calling your rents or whatever should have taught you better.
Another misuse of "equity." For the love of God, please go read an article about law and equity in its entirety so you can actually see what the words mean and stop looking so foolish saying things like "you go into equity." That doesn't make sense and it doesn't mean anything. When you get married, you apply for a license under a state statute, and having the license allows you to claim benefits under state or federal law. Lower tax payments are a statutory benefit: under the statute, you are legally obligated to pay less tax.

Tax protestors make frivolous, pseudo-legal arguments without any serious legal justification or significance to justify not reporting any of their income to the federal government and not paying any tax to the federal government. Quite a significant difference.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
I will get right on that massa sir hold ur breath while I do your bidding sire don't hit with internet words too hard massa imma work fasta....shove it dude try not to enjoy it too much plenty of ppl left on riu to correct ur nonesense I've reached the end of it all.
You won't be able to source your claims because there are no sources. Your claims are totally baseless, and you are just a horribly confused person without the training to recognize that you're being fooled by someone who literally makes their living "educating" people about "lawful money" and how they can "legally" avoid paying income tax.
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
Did you not bother to read the post? Almost all of the states have extinguished common law marriage. There is legally no such thing in almost all of the states. You keep nothing in common law, you demand no remedy. The right to marriage is based on the Fifth Amendment of the constitution--it has nothing to do with common law. Nothing.



Another misuse of "equity." For the love of God, please go read an article about law and equity in its entirety so you can actually see what the words mean and stop looking so foolish saying things like "you go into equity." That doesn't make sense and it doesn't mean anything. When you get married, you apply for a license under a state statute, and having the license allows you to claim benefits under state or federal law. Lower tax payments are a statutory benefit: under the statute, you are legally obligated to pay less tax.

Tax protestors make frivolous, pseudo-legal arguments without any serious legal justification or significance to justify not reporting any of their income to the federal government and not paying any tax to the federal government. Quite a significant difference.
So you love god now? Ouch. Go read about equity huh did you bring up equity into this discussion or try and avoid it. Ouch. Right to marry is the common law right to contract with your partner and the preacher and minister. Ouch.
Statutory liscence is equitable because you submit application....submit dummy.....ouch. after submitting you get equitable bennies single ppl don't get. Ouch. Legally obligated to pay less tax? Nope you submitted and applied for the bennies in equity ouch.
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
10th circuit upheld frns as legal tender and notes rickman cashed his paycheck to make lawful money just like FDR said.....ouch.

Can't find"the people" anywhere near "lawful money" anywhere in the fed act ouch. Frns only purpose is for advances to reserve agents. Ouch. 12usc411 takes you from legal equity to law then has the first judicary act to back it.ouch. 31usc5115 and 37th congress explain how the accounting is different. Ouch
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
You won't be able to source your claims because there are no sources. Your claims are totally baseless, and you are just a horribly confused person without the training to recognize that you're being fooled by someone who literally makes their living "educating" people about "lawful money" and how they can "legally" avoid paying income tax.
I can source what BOEs are they have a long history. You speak of my training one more time having not revealed yours again code monkey? Ouch. Again with income tax that's all you got? Ouch. You think I took a david merrill seminar or paid for any info I put in this thread? Lol ouch.

Unlike you I remain "in good faith" because I have not claimed authority on all one million laws on the books....OUCH.
 

doublejj

Well-Known Member
Well what ever Obama is doing to the economy, he can just keep doing it as far as I'm concerned. My deferred comp IRA (457) plan just earned $3694.11 in the last Qtr.alone This is a very diversified fund that I just kept and let ride, after I retired 2 years ago. I almost took the money out when I retired, now I'm glad I didn't. It made about 14% last Qrt..........:eyesmoke:
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
So you love god now? Ouch. Go read about equity huh did you bring up equity into this discussion or try and avoid it. Ouch. Right to marry is the common law right to contract with your partner and the preacher and minister. Ouch.
Except it flat out legally isn't, as far as the government is concerned, except in a few states that retained common law marriage. The rest abrogated it.

The right to marry in the United States, under the United States constitution, is derived from the Fifth Amendment, not the common law.

Statutory liscence is equitable because you submit application....submit dummy.....ouch. after submitting you get equitable bennies single ppl don't get. Ouch. Legally obligated to pay less tax? Nope you submitted and applied for the bennies in equity ouch.
It's not equitable. It's a statute. It has nothing to do with any court. You follow the procedure required by the statute to get the benefits afforded by other statutes.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
10th circuit upheld frns as legal tender and notes rickman cashed his paycheck to make lawful money just like FDR said.....ouch.
We don't you need you to tell us what they said: US v. Rickman: "Defendant received Federal Reserve Notes...He obtained and used lawful money."

Can't find"the people" anywhere near "lawful money" anywhere in the fed act ouch.
So what? Irrelevant.

Frns only purpose is for advances to reserve agents. Ouch. 12usc411 takes you from legal equity to law then has the first judicary act to back it.ouch. 31usc5115 and 37th congress explain how the accounting is different. Ouch
Stop looking so blatantly ignorant. 12 USC 411 has nothing to do with law or equity in the courts. Go read a damned article and stop sounding so damned foolish.

The 37th congress did not describe a magical United States Note wash process to convert Federal Reserve Notes into magical lawful money currency.
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
Except it flat out legally isn't, as far as the government is concerned, except in a few states that retained common law marriage. The rest abrogated it.

The right to marry in the United States, under the United States constitution, is derived from the Fifth Amendment, not the common law.



It's not equitable. It's a statute. It has nothing to do with any court. You follow the procedure required by the statute to get the benefits afforded by other statutes.
So why not go back page by page and CTRL+F "fifth amendment" and ponder to yourself why you would be talking to me about that......what law was the constitution derived from and still waiting to hear where you went to law school did you get a pamphlet on the David Merrill speech circuit?
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
We don't you need you to tell us what they said: US v. Rickman: "Defendant received Federal Reserve Notes...He obtained and used lawful money."



So what? Irrelevant.



Stop looking so blatantly ignorant. 12 USC 411 has nothing to do with law or equity in the courts. Go read a damned article and stop sounding so damned foolish.

The 37th congress did not describe a magical United States Note wash process to convert Federal Reserve Notes into magical lawful money currency.
Hmm wonder why Rickman decistion doesn't say FRN's ARE lawful money.....another fail...maybe court is aware of UCC 3-102 (c)..........http://www.law.cornell.edu/ucc/3/article3.htm....ya know since law and equity is blended now and all........


U.C.C. - ARTICLE 3 - NEGOTIABLE INSTRUMENTS
§ 3-102. SUBJECT MATTER.
c) Regulations of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System and operating circulars of the Federal Reserve Banks supersede any inconsistent provision of this Article to the extent of the inconsistency.

I can't believe you choose to still look so stupid up in here asserting Fed Notes aren't negotiable.......it's like all you have to say....securities and bonds and other sundry lawful money is non-negotiable.......congress gives Fed a bond it pays a certain amount over a certain time....Fed notes are "elastic" say so in the first part of the Fed Act ...............

[h=1]an act to provide for the establishment of federal reserve banks, to furnish an elastic currency, to afford means of rediscounting commercial paper...........[/h]
LOL so stoooopid.
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
Seriously how can anyone not understand this? We know what equity means we know it means in commerce we know we have adapted maritime commercial law at the state level....ucc not maritime law? Commerce only regulated to land then? Think commercial law is law of the land? Most commerce does not happen on "vessels" at sea? Don't need to be party to a contract to be in equity then?

Fed act does not say "to establish an elastic currency" and "to provide.....Federal reserve banks." And "to afford means of rediscounting commercial paper" then?

Then we jump on into commercial paper in that thar UCC that talks about all kinds of commercial paper including notes, bills of exchange, currency, assigns it's own def of "money", and specificlly mentions the federal reserve in the "negotiable instruments" section.........to say they are non-negotiable instruments as per this section unless the Board of Governors says this or that in conflict with the section.......

Then in the "preamble" LOL it starts by saying 1-103 (b) "Unless displaced by the particular provisions of [the Uniform Commercial Code], the principles of law and equity, including the law merchant and the law relative to capacity to contract, principal and agent, estoppel, fraud, misrepresentation, duress, coercion, mistake, bankruptcy, and other validating or invalidating cause supplement its provisions"..........

and this tokeprep can pretend he was not the one who drew the civil boundary and continues to play ignorant as to what lies on either side?

Legal cases can be Law, Equity or Maritime..........Equity and Maritime require a contract. Law and Maritime can carry Criminal Actions and Equity can't. Law is just Law can be case Law and the highest is Constitutional Law.

So what is legal at Equity and Maritime according to their contracts are merely legal, not lawful. Equity and Maritime have "laws" that pertain to the contracts only....laws pertaining to the contract sometimes just called law....which is different from Law.
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
Then ppl want to sit and pretend a license is needed for a right. You don't need a license to get married you just need a fucking ring and a promise to your spouse you need the license to get your bennies.....you don't need a license to drive you can just drive. The license is you agreeing to all the fines and rules....is it practical to not get bennies from marriage? No. Practical to go around explaining why you have no ID? Although no law requires a citizen to carry one, its not practical at all....but we should at least be aware of it so ignorance like "fed notes carry no interest" does not continue to spread.

Lawful money means Constitutional....pertaining to Law not Equity.....The Law is we must have an interest free currency that may not be used for the public debt..........there it sits in 31usc5115 and coinage act............then we have Fed notes......that are only legal tender............we pretend these aren't in Equity?? It was a big deal to get the US Notes to fly let alone this horseshit.....Banks thought they had Lincoln by the balls with like 30% interest rates so he bent the rules a little and printed his own, hey he really had to imho but FRN's are in a whole other universe and tokeprep I really hate you sounding so stupid saying they are Lawful Money all the time with such authority you have not one clue what you are talking about.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
So why not go back page by page and CTRL+F "fifth amendment" and ponder to yourself why you would be talking to me about that......what law was the constitution derived from and still waiting to hear where you went to law school did you get a pamphlet on the David Merrill speech circuit?
I certainly wouldn't say the constitution was derived from English common law. The constitution was a purposeful codification of some principles from the English common law, I agree with that, but the common law ceased at the codification. Your due process rights come from the constitution, not from the English common law. The fact that the idea of due process originated in the English common law does not make it the source of your due process rights as an American citizen living under the constitution.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
Hmm wonder why Rickman decistion doesn't say FRN's ARE lawful money.....another fail...
They don't literally say those words, no, but that is the implicit conclusion from the opinion. He got Federal Reserve Notes and used them and they tell us that means he obtained and used lawful money. Given the rest of the context in the opinion--the part where the court says there's no distinction between legal tender and lawful money--what other conclusion is the court giving us?

maybe court is aware of UCC 3-102 (c)..........http://www.law.cornell.edu/ucc/3/article3.htm....ya know since law and equity is blended now and all........

U.C.C. - ARTICLE 3 - NEGOTIABLE INSTRUMENTS
§ 3-102. SUBJECT MATTER.
c) Regulations of the Board of Governors of the Federal Reserve System and operating circulars of the Federal Reserve Banks supersede any inconsistent provision of this Article to the extent of the inconsistency.
Maybe you are unaware that the Federal Reserve has regulatory authority over things that are not Federal Reserve Notes, including commercial instruments that are governed by Article III. This provision makes clear that federal regulations, when applicable, supersede state law.

I can't believe you choose to still look so stupid up in here asserting Fed Notes aren't negotiable.......it's like all you have to say....securities and bonds and other sundry lawful money is non-negotiable.......congress gives Fed a bond it pays a certain amount over a certain time....Fed notes are "elastic" say so in the first part of the Fed Act ...............

an act to provide for the establishment of federal reserve banks, to furnish an elastic currency, to afford means of rediscounting commercial paper...........


LOL so stoooopid.
So stupid for you to presume that something not even purporting to be applicable to Federal Reserve Notes actually is applicable.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
Seriously how can anyone not understand this? We know what equity means we know it means in commerce
And who says equity, in the context of courts of equity and law, means "in commerce"? Thanks.

we know we have adapted maritime commercial law at the state level....ucc not maritime law? Commerce only regulated to land then? Think commercial law is law of the land? Most commerce does not happen on "vessels" at sea? Don't need to be party to a contract to be in equity then?
Maritime law is maritime law, and according to the constitution, there is no such thing as state maritime law. When state courts hear maritime cases, they have to apply federal maritime law. That's the end of it. The UCC is only enacted at the state level, and since maritime law is solely a body of federal law, the UCC is not "maritime law."

The regulation of commerce is not maritime law. Admiralty is a set of very specific thing water-centric things, not general commercial law, which is what you're trying to assert here.

Again, this is confusion. The fact that you're shipping something on a vessel does not mean you automatically have a maritime case. If your vessel crashed, then yes, perhaps you would have some rights under admiralty law. Otherwise, you've got nothing, and the transaction is governed by other bodies of law. So that's the norm.

Indeed, in the kind of international situations you're talking about--big container ships crossing the oceans--a lot of transactions are actually governed by a UN Convention because that's the default rule. So in the transactions you're bringing up, United States commercial law often isn't even applicable or enforceable in United States courts against international parties.

Fed act does not say "to establish an elastic currency" and "to provide.....Federal reserve banks." And "to afford means of rediscounting commercial paper" then?
Not in dispute, just not meaningful.

Then we jump on into commercial paper in that thar UCC that talks about all kinds of commercial paper including notes, bills of exchange, currency, assigns it's own def of "money", and specificlly mentions the federal reserve in the "negotiable instruments" section.........to say they are non-negotiable instruments as per this section unless the Board of Governors says this or that in conflict with the section.......
The statute doesn't say they're non-negotiable instruments unless the Fed says otherwise. It says Fed regulations on commercial instruments having nothing to do with Federal Reserve Notes may supersede some parts of the article.

Then in the "preamble" LOL it starts by saying 1-103 (b) "Unless displaced by the particular provisions of [the Uniform Commercial Code], the principles of law and equity, including the law merchant and the law relative to capacity to contract, principal and agent, estoppel, fraud, misrepresentation, duress, coercion, mistake, bankruptcy, and other validating or invalidating cause supplement its provisions"..........

and this tokeprep can pretend he was not the one who drew the civil boundary and continues to play ignorant as to what lies on either side?

Legal cases can be Law, Equity or Maritime..........Equity and Maritime require a contract. Law and Maritime can carry Criminal Actions and Equity can't. Law is just Law can be case Law and the highest is Constitutional Law.

So what is legal at Equity and Maritime according to their contracts are merely legal, not lawful. Equity and Maritime have "laws" that pertain to the contracts only....laws pertaining to the contract sometimes just called law....which is different from Law.
Again, you just don't understand what this is supposed to mean. When they say "the law relative to capacity to contract," they mean the existing state law on capacity to contract. How old do you have to be? Can a retarded person sign a contract? Can a drunk person sign a contract? Can parents sign contracts for their children? The UCC doesn't answer these kinds of questions about who can make contracts. This provision leaves that to existing state law, unless it's clear the UCC is supposed to displace something.

I never drew anything called "the civil boundary." You misunderstood something I said. Legal cases are legal cases. Period. They are not "law, equity, or maritime." They are legal cases. A contract may or may not be involved; if it's a criminal matter, then state or federal criminal law is applicable. None of it has anything to do with law and equity.

You just told us that equity can't carry criminal actions. How do federal district courts deal with criminal actions, then? They're equity courts, according to you.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
Then ppl want to sit and pretend a license is needed for a right. You don't need a license to get married you just need a fucking ring and a promise to your spouse you need the license to get your bennies.....
Obviously you don't need the government's blessing to get married. I never claimed otherwise. But the "right" of marriage the supreme court has spoken of--the one protected by the Fifth Amendment--is the right to have the government recognize your marriage and give you the benefits it has enacted for married people. It is not what you just described, so yes, you actually do need a government license to obtain the "right" described by the supreme court.

you don't need a license to drive you can just drive. The license is you agreeing to all the fines and rules....is it practical to not get bennies from marriage? No. Practical to go around explaining why you have no ID? Although no law requires a citizen to carry one, its not practical at all....but we should at least be aware of it so ignorance like "fed notes carry no interest" does not continue to spread.
No one's ever said you have the right to drive. The supreme court has said that the constitution says you have the right to get married. That's the end of it. They concluded that marriage is so fundamental to the lives of people that it must be a right within the due process clause. Not so of driving.

Lawful money means Constitutional....pertaining to Law not Equity.....The Law is we must have an interest free currency that may not be used for the public debt..........there it sits in 31usc5115 and coinage act............then we have Fed notes......that are only legal tender............we pretend these aren't in Equity?? It was a big deal to get the US Notes to fly let alone this horseshit.....Banks thought they had Lincoln by the balls with like 30% interest rates so he bent the rules a little and printed his own, hey he really had to imho but FRN's are in a whole other universe and tokeprep I really hate you sounding so stupid saying they are Lawful Money all the time with such authority you have not one clue what you are talking about.
Law and equity are about the courts, not the constitution. The law is the constitution, the statutes passed by congress, federal regulations enacted pursuant to congressional authority, and court interpretations of all the other sources. According to the law, Federal Reserve Notes are lawful money. Rickman not only says that, it says that there is no distinction between legal tender and lawful money, which is what you just drew! The courts, interpreting the law, have called out one of your major points as bullshit.

When redemption in gold and silver had totally ceased and congress made all types of currency redeemable only for face value in Federal Reserve Notes, there ceased to be a distinction between legal tender and lawful money.
 
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