Not disputing any of that. The question is why you don't understand what it's saying. This is a statute about maritime/admiralty jurisdiction, so how is it relevant?from the statute in question:http://143.231.180.80/view.xhtml?req=granuleid:USC-prelim-title28-section1333&num=0&edition=prelim
"The district courts shall have original jurisdiction, exclusive of the courts of the States, of:
(1) Any civil case of admiralty or maritime jurisdiction, saving to suitors in all cases all other remedies to which they are otherwise entitled.
(2) Any prize brought into the United States and all proceedings for the condemnation of property taken as prize.
(June 25, 1948, ch. 646, 62 Stat. 931; May 24, 1949, ch. 139, §79, 63 Stat. 101.)
The saving to suitors clause in sections 41(3) and 371(3) of title 28, U.S.C., 1940 ed., was changed by substituting the words any other remedy to which he is otherwise entitled for the words the right of a common law remedy where the common law is competent to give it. The substituted language is simpler and more expressive of theoriginal intent of Congress and is in conformity with Rule 2 of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure abolishing the distinction between law and equity.
From the Act:http://www.constitution.org/uslaw/judiciary_1789.htm
"That the district courts shall have, exclusively of the courts of the several States, cognizance of all crimes and offences that shall be cognizable under the authority of the United States, committed within their respective districts, or upon the high seas; where no other punishment than whipping, not exceeding thirty stripes, a fine not exceeding one hundred dollars, or a term of imprisonment not exceeding six months, is to be inflicted; and shall also have exclusive original cognizance of all civil causes of admiralty and maritime jurisdiction, including all seizures under laws of impost, navigation or trade of the United States, where the seizures are made, on waters which are navigable from the sea by vessels of ten or more tons burthen, within their respective districts as well as upon the high seas; saving to suitors, in all cases, the right of a common law remedy, where the common law is competent to give it; and shall also have exclusive original cognizance of all seizures on land,""
God love you, Twostroke. It's you who is confused yet again. You know why no one differentiates between law and equity at the federal level? Because the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, governing all the federal courts in this country, abolished the distinction. See this note from the Congressional Research Service's annotated constitution: "Adoption of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure in 1938 merged law and equity into a single civil jurisdiction and established uniform rules of procedure. Legal and equitable claims which previously had to be brought as separate causes of action on different sides of the court could now be joined in a single action, and in some instances, such as compulsory counterclaims, had to be joined in one action."I think you really are just confused on what is law and what is equity. I honestly don't expect you to know this merely having worked for some representative. Most of Congress is unaware of this which is the main source of "bullshit" today, in this economy in this time.
The section you're quoting preserves a common law remedy in state court in maritime/admiralty cases. Now what does that have to do with the Federal Reserve Act?