Impossible! The deficit is falling as well as unemployment Obama wrecking economy

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
from the statute in question:http://143.231.180.80/view.xhtml?req=granuleid:USC-prelim-title28-section1333&num=0&edition=prelim

"The district courts shall have original jurisdiction, exclusive of the courts of the States, of:
(1) Any civil case of admiralty or maritime jurisdiction, saving to suitors in all cases all other remedies to which they are otherwise entitled.
(2) Any prize brought into the United States and all proceedings for the condemnation of property taken as prize.
(June 25, 1948, ch. 646, 62 Stat. 931; May 24, 1949, ch. 139, §79, 63 Stat. 101.)

The “saving to suitors” clause in sections 41(3) and 371(3) of title 28, U.S.C., 1940 ed., was changed by substituting the words “any other remedy to which he is otherwise entitled” for the words “the right of a common law remedy where the common law is competent to give it.” The substituted language is simpler and more expressive of theoriginal intent of Congress and is in conformity with Rule 2 of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure abolishing the distinction between law and equity.

From the Act:http://www.constitution.org/uslaw/judiciary_1789.htm

"That the district courts shall have, exclusively of the courts of the several States, cognizance of all crimes and offences that shall be cognizable under the authority of the United States, committed within their respective districts, or upon the high seas; where no other punishment than whipping, not exceeding thirty stripes, a fine not exceeding one hundred dollars, or a term of imprisonment not exceeding six months, is to be inflicted; and shall also have exclusive original cognizance of all civil causes of admiralty and maritime jurisdiction, including all seizures under laws of impost, navigation or trade of the United States, where the seizures are made, on waters which are navigable from the sea by vessels of ten or more tons burthen, within their respective districts as well as upon the high seas; saving to suitors, in all cases, the right of a common law remedy, where the common law is competent to give it; and shall also have exclusive original cognizance of all seizures on land,""
Not disputing any of that. The question is why you don't understand what it's saying. This is a statute about maritime/admiralty jurisdiction, so how is it relevant?

I think you really are just confused on what is law and what is equity. I honestly don't expect you to know this merely having worked for some representative. Most of Congress is unaware of this which is the main source of "bullshit" today, in this economy in this time.
God love you, Twostroke. It's you who is confused yet again. You know why no one differentiates between law and equity at the federal level? Because the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure, governing all the federal courts in this country, abolished the distinction. See this note from the Congressional Research Service's annotated constitution: "Adoption of the Federal Rules of Civil Procedure in 1938 merged law and equity into a single civil jurisdiction and established uniform rules of procedure. Legal and equitable claims which previously had to be brought as separate causes of action on different “sides” of the court could now be joined in a single action, and in some instances, such as compulsory counterclaims, had to be joined in one action."

The section you're quoting preserves a common law remedy in state court in maritime/admiralty cases. Now what does that have to do with the Federal Reserve Act?
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
Your right to common law remedy is also your right to keep to common law terms and defs, common case law and right to be heard in civil district court....provided you used the remedy and made the demand for redemption you do not have to be aware of the accounting in equity..........common law is "competent" because common law defined the contract in equity and defined the remedy to return from equity money to common law money.
You aren't even reading the statute properly: "saving to suitors, in all cases, the right of a common law remedy, where the common law is competent to give it." This means in state court, outside of the jurisdiction this statute otherwise grants to the federal courts. So this saving to suitors clause doesn't even provide a "right to be heard in civil district court."

Still not understanding what admiralty law has to do with the monetary system though...
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
WTF you literally copy me verbatim and attempt to explain away what I highlighted for you? You are just impossible, this is evidence redemption is not for you, in every sense of the word. You don't want it, that's your right to remain in equity. A lot of us want out so we can do something about the DEBT. To support your argument you have claimed court has overturned the common law and statutory UScode definitions of lawful money, money, Money and legal tender. You have claimed tax court to support your argument ignoring they do not establish common law.....You claim tax court overturned the definition of lawful money and still have failed to identify the competency of the tax court. Go get your shit together and come back more informed.
If you want to do something about the debt, elect better politicians who will enact sound economic policies and control government spending. We have the power to do that right now. Don't pretend that the $61 million of United States Notes authorized to be issued by the treasury are going to magically cure the federal debt through the process of redemption. You realize it's David Merrill, you, and the tax protestor crowd pushing this bullshit and refusing to pay millions of dollars of taxes owed that are making the deficit worse.

Honestly, I think the whole thing is partly an act in addition to being pathological tax evasion. This guy is obviously not paying the federal taxes he owes, so he's assembled a wonderful body of evidence of his being a crackpot for the court to review if he's ever sued for deficiency, and given it they might decide that he didn't meet the state of mind requirement to commit the higher level tax crimes (since he seems so very thoroughly convinced that all of this is legal), which could mean avoiding jail time. Crazy like a fox, maybe.

I never said the court overturned any of those things; I never said the tax court established the law; I never said any court overturned any definition of "lawful money" because no such definition exists.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
great more repeating what I already said to you so you can save some face........we already established this is Commercial Code and remedy would exclude all these.....these apply to the accounting of redeemed notes of equity though, "elastic currency" that are "instruments".....according to the Remedy I am reading in the Act it specifically says suitors don't honestly have to know all the equity shit.

If they apply the UCC def of money then they must apply the def of "instrument" as well....the part you always leave out while repeating yourself over and over......the whole code must apply specifically each states rendition......which has provisions for what is "money" as pre-defined by government.....which fits my argument that "behind the counter" the accounting happens.......checkmate your move.
The remedy in the act you're talking about is about ships, not about money.

As for the second paragraph, that's absolutely true. The UCC definition of "instrument" is applied all the time. Alas, Article 3 says that "money" is not a "negotiable instrument." Article 3 also says that a "negotiable instrument" is the same as an "instrument." Thus money is not a negotiable instrument or an instrument, because the article says that it isn't applicable to money. That's what makes the definitions irrelevant to Federal Reserve Notes.

Now, for anything else that is not "money," the definition of instrument is relevant and applicable.

The stuff about each state's rendition--I take it you mean Utah? Gold and silver, if authorized as a medium of exchange under state law, would presumably be "money" under the same definition as "Federal Reserve Notes." Thus they cannot be negotiable instruments. It has nothing to do with being gold and silver and everything to do with being "money" under the definition of the word in the UCC, which is totally independent and apart from the definition in federal law.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
Let's introduce a court case and see how you handle the UCC money question with it:

"Because currency is then no longer backed by any real value or money, per [the defendant's argument], any attempt to tax the Husband's wages or collect in Treasury dollars is tantamount to fraud and results in dishonor of the Husband's obligations to the IRS under the UCC, specifically [provision of Article 3 on negotiable instruments]...

...the Debtors attempt to apply totally inapplicable statutory provisions. In addition to arguing that paper currency is worthless without the gold and silver backing, they invoke Article 3 of the UCC to support the conclusion that the Husband's tax liability is vitiated by the devaluing of currency. However, the UCC, at [3-102], explicitly declares that Article 3, in its entirety, pertains only to negotiable instruments, and not to money. Hence, the Debtors' argument lacks logical or legal support."

How did they not mean what they said this time? "Treasury dollars" are not "Federal Reserve Notes"?
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
You applied UCC definition of money to back your cases and your argument when I was citing you Congressional and Constitutional definitions. Really don't want to go back and argue that......... I have been screaming "First Judiciary Act" this whole entire discourse. You wait till the end to actually read it. Soon as I say David Merrill you scream Apples!! Netflix!!
As if everything I said has no sources and links.

Then you cry the whole case rests on a Treasury FAQ! Which is directly in line with UCC def's of instruments which explains the FRN for FRN redemption that go on even in official documented competent court decisions all the while knowing nothing of law and equity seemingly all the while claiming Supreme Knowledge on every word or quote at hand..........

All the while dismissing the legal, two party contract; contained right on the front of every single mother fucking fed note.

Chickens!!!
Mason Jars!!

If these laws apply to the cases they do so by lawful two party contract. This is a contract in equity. Court must consider the contract and its definitions. You think nothing gets signed by Congress, Treasury and Fed every time Fed notes are borrowed to serve as Reserves?
Must I do all the work for you?
So a commercial bank is not issuing commercial notes then? We have not established The Fed is a private bank in point of fact?
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
Let's introduce a court case and see how you handle the UCC money question with it:

"Because currency is then no longer backed by any real value or money, per [the defendant's argument], any attempt to tax the Husband's wages or collect in Treasury dollars is tantamount to fraud and results in dishonor of the Husband's obligations to the IRS under the UCC, specifically [provision of Article 3 on negotiable instruments]...

...the Debtors attempt to apply totally inapplicable statutory provisions. In addition to arguing that paper currency is worthless without the gold and silver backing, they invoke Article 3 of the UCC to support the conclusion that the Husband's tax liability is vitiated by the devaluing of currency. However, the UCC, at [3-102], explicitly declares that Article 3, in its entirety, pertains only to negotiable instruments, and not to money. Hence, the Debtors' argument lacks logical or legal support."

How did they not mean what they said this time? "Treasury dollars" are not "Federal Reserve Notes"?
Fuck no you will not go on to tax arguments to avoid everything at hand you already have not addressed. To do so is to admit you're flat out wrong.

And its tantamount to fraud to argue either note is backed by hard Money everyone already knows this so does UCC!!to cite ucc defense having signed the check and not applying common law remedy puts you in dishonor!!! They cited UCC money def as you do!!! Did they cite Congressional def's or Congressional Remedy????Thought not!!! Havent read the case and not going to!! especially without a link cherry picker!!!!

This is not a tax protestor thread but economic discussion about money and the defecit!!! Why do you insist anyone is using this info to not pay taxes???? Should I lump all your arguments into Marxism????? It would be very comparable!!!You want to start an income tax thread fuck off and do it!!! I will prolly see you there till then I am shopping for a model airplane I might buy with left over tax return money cause I file 0!!!
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
You applied UCC definition of money to back your cases and your argument when I was citing you Congressional and Constitutional definitions. Really don't want to go back and argue that......... I have been screaming "First Judiciary Act" this whole entire discourse. You wait till the end to actually read it. Soon as I say David Merrill you scream Apples!! Netflix!!
As if everything I said has no sources and links.
I did no such thing, I assure you. I applied the UCC definition of money whenever you brought the UCC up, otherwise it would make no sense. I'm the one who's been declaring the definitions separate for several pages now.

Then you cry the whole case rests on a Treasury FAQ! Which is directly in line with UCC def's of instruments which explains the FRN for FRN redemption that go on even in official documented competent court decisions all the while knowing nothing of law and equity seemingly all the while claiming Supreme Knowledge on every word or quote at hand..........

All the while dismissing the legal, two party contract; contained right on the front of every single mother fucking fed note.

Chickens!!!
Mason Jars!!

If these laws apply to the cases they do so by lawful two party contract. This is a contract in equity. Court must consider the contract and its definitions. You think nothing gets signed by Congress, Treasury and Fed every time Fed notes are borrowed to serve as Reserves?
Must I do all the work for you?
So a commercial bank is not issuing commercial notes then? We have not established The Fed is a private bank in point of fact?
Whether the Fed is a private bank or not is totally irrelevant to this discussion. The definition of "money" in the UCC merely requires currency authorized by a domestic government, which Federal Reserve Notes certainly are, whether they're redeemable for anything or "lawful money" or not.

There is no "commercial contract" when the source of commercial law in every state explicitly says that it is inapplicable to Federal Reserve Notes. The courts never talk about a "contract" at all, and now you're telling us that they must consider it? More shoving unsaid words into their mouths!

Of course there are documents involved in issuing currency, purchasing bonds, etc. But contract law is not the same as commercial law anyway, so I don't know what point you're hoping to make with that. The fact that documents get signed doesn't make the whole UCC applicable.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
Fuck no you will not go on to tax arguments to avoid everything at hand you already have not addressed. To do so is to admit you're flat out wrong.
I've addressed everything at hand. If I left anything out, let me know and I'll take care of it.

My purpose is not to start a tax argument, it's to show an application of the definition of "money" in the UCC to Federal Reserve Notes by a federal court. My goal is just to help you see that your argument about negotiable instruments is totally spurious.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
The "saving to suitors" clause from the supreme court in 2001, in Lewis v. Lewis & Clark. You can read the discussion, but the first and last sentences make the point about the meaning:

"Federal courts have exclusive jurisdiction over admiralty and maritime claims, but the jurisdictional statute "sav[es] to suitors in all cases all other remedies to which they are otherwise entitled." 28 U.S.C. 1333(1).

...

Article III, 2, of the United States Constitution vests federal courts with jurisdiction over all cases of admiralty and maritime jurisdiction. Section 9 of the Judiciary Act of 1789 codified this grant of exclusive original jurisdiction, but "sav[ed] to suitors, in all cases, the right of a common law remedy, where the common law is competent to give it." Ch. 20, 9, 1 Stat. 77. In the intervening years, Congress has revised the language of the saving to suitors clause, but its substance has remained largely unchanged. See 28 U.S.C. 41(3) and 371 Third (1940 ed.) ("saving to suitors in all cases the right of a common-law remedy where the common law is competent to give it"); 28 U.S.C. 1333(1) (1946 ed., Supp. II) ("saving to the libellant or petitioner in every case any other remedy to which he is otherwise entitled"); Act of May 24, 1949, ch. 139, 79, 63 Stat. 101 ("saving to suitors in all cases all other remedies to which they are otherwise entitled"). The jurisdictional statute now states that "[t]he district courts shall have original jurisdiction, exclusive of the courts of the States, of ... any civil case of admiralty or maritime jurisdiction, saving to suitors in all cases all other remedies to which they are otherwise entitled." 28 U.S.C. 1333(1) (emphasis added).

What the drafters of the Judiciary Act intended in creating the saving to suitors clause is not entirely clear and has been the subject of some debate. See, e.g., 1 J. Goebel, Antecedents and Beginnings to 1801, History of the Supreme Court of the United States 474 (1971). Compare Casto, The Origins of Federal Admiralty Jurisdiction in an Age of Privateers, Smugglers, and Pirates, 37 Am. J. Legal Hist. 117, 139-149 (1993), with Gutoff, Original Understandings and the Private Law Origins of the Federal Admiralty Jurisdiction, A Reply to Professor Casto, 30 J. Mar. L. & Com. 361, 387-390 (1999). This Court theorized that the saving to suitors clause was "inserted, probably, from abundant caution, lest the exclusive terms in which the power is conferred on the District Courts might be deemed to have taken away the concurrent remedy which had before existed. This leaves the concurrent power where it stood at common law." New Jersey Steam Nav. Co. v. Merchants' Bank of Boston, 6 How. 344, 390 (1848).

In early cases we defined the limits of the clause. For instance, proceedings in rem were deemed outside the scope of the clause because an in rem action was not a common law remedy, but instead a proceeding under civil law. See, e.g., The Hine v. Trevor, 4 Wall. 555, 571-572 (1867); The Moses Taylor, 4 Wall. 411, 431 (1867). We later distinguished between the concept of rights and remedies. Chelentis v. Luckenbach S. S. Co., 247 U.S. 372, 383-384 (1918). In Chelentis, we held that maritime law governs a seaman's right to recovery against a vessel owner for his injuries aboard the vessel. We explained that "[t]he distinction between rights and remedies is fundamental. A right is a well founded or acknowledged claim; a remedy is the means employed to enforce a right or redress an injury." Id., at 384.

In a subsequent case, the Court defined the saving to suitors clause as a grant to state courts of in personam jurisdiction, concurrent with admiralty courts. Red Cross Line v. Atlantic Fruit Co., 264 U.S. 109, 123 (1924). We held enforceable an arbitration agreement between an owner of a steamship and a company that chartered the ship. We reasoned that agreements to arbitrate were valid under admiralty law, and that the State of New York had the power to confer on its courts the authority to compel parties to submit to arbitration. We explained that the state arbitration law merely provided a remedy in state court:

"The 'right of a common law remedy,' so saved to suitors, does not ... include attempted changes by the States in the substantive admiralty law, but it does include all means other than proceedings in admiralty which may be employed to enforce the right or to redress the injury involved. It includes remedies in pais, as well as proceedings in court; judicial remedies conferred by statute, as well as those existing at the common law; remedies in equity, as well as those enforceable in a court of law." Id., at 123-124.

Thus, the saving to suitors clause preserves remedies and the concurrent jurisdiction of state courts over some admiralty and maritime claims. See also Madruga v. Superior Court of Cal., County of San Diego, 346 U.S. 556, 560-561 (1954); Steamboat Co. v. Chase, 16 Wall. 522, 533-534 (1873)."

How is redeeming your currency an admiralty/maritime claim?
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
I know we can elect better officials but look at you? I know you only claimed to work under one and not be one but they should be aware of all of this................With statements like "
  • Still not understanding what admiralty law has to do with the monetary system though...​


"
Obviously yours was not. You get to run the Auto Pen?


Why the hell should we settle for incompetence and hope our choices contain competent people? Most all of Congress has not one clue what we are talking about right now. Remedy would free us from their ignorance and ever more complicated "intellectual" "scholarly" garbage which is purely a mask to justify counterfeiting to give special attention to special interests and other privileged individuals or groups of society.

It facilitates people begging saying gimme gimme some "rights" which is fucking oxymoronic to a free society that really does not give two shits if you are gay or black or even illegal for that matter as we would all be economically equal and without special privilege.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
I know we can elect better officials but look at you? I know you only claimed to work under one and not be one but they should be aware of all of this................With statements like "
  • Still not understanding what admiralty law has to do with the monetary system though...​


"
Obviously yours was not. You get to run the Auto Pen?

Why the hell should we settle for incompetence and hope our choices contain competent people? Most all of Congress has not one clue what we are talking about right now. Remedy would free us from their ignorance and ever more complicated "intellectual" "scholarly" garbage which is purely a mask to justify counterfeiting to give special attention to special interests and other privileged individuals or groups of society.

It facilitates people begging saying gimme gimme some "rights" which is fucking oxymoronic to a free society that really does not give two shits if you are gay or black or even illegal for that matter as we would all be economically equal and without special privilege.
You haven't explained what currency redemption has to do with admiralty law. I'm patiently waiting to hear about it, but so far nothing, aside from implying that I'm an idiot because I'm not "aware" of what you apparently know and refuse to share.
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
I never said the court overturned any of those things; I never said the tax court established the law; I never said any court overturned any definition of "lawful money" because no such definition exists.

See this is what I mean. You don't understand law and equity. You glossed it over as if you are hooked right into the Matrix as if you "have a beautiful mind" you fucking don't bro. You need more MAJOR RESEARCH. The definition lies in the original not in equity contract of this nation. Unless you think the Constitution is Maritime law in which case all I can say is nice potato special guy!!!!!
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
See this is what I mean. You don't understand law and equity. You need more MAJOR RESEARCH. The definition lies in the original not in equity contract of this nation. Unless you think the Constitution is Maritime law in which case all I can say is nice potato special guy!!!!!
There's no distinction between law and equity in the federal courts today. It is you who doesn't seem to understand this. A remedy at equity or at law is today just a remedy available from one court by a single action; there are no law and equity pleading rules anymore. The district courts can grant money damages just as they can grant injunctions, or both together.
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
Federal Rules of Civil Procedure are in harmony with All Congressional and Court actions in all cases presented!! They blended law and equity in the court so fucking what does not change the courts competency to apply a common law remedy!! Your notary public arguably has more power than most any court.
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
You haven't explained what currency redemption has to do with admiralty law. I'm patiently waiting to hear about it, but so far nothing, aside from implying that I'm an idiot because I'm not "aware" of what you apparently know and refuse to share.
Go fish the record. exclusive original cognizance of all civil causes of admiralty and maritime jurisdiction

Cause of admiralty? It's called a contract.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
Federal Rules of Civil Procedure are in harmony with All Congressional and Court actions in all cases presented!! They blended law and equity in the court so fucking what does not change the courts competency to apply a common law remedy!! Your notary public arguably has more power than most any court.
You're the one arguing that I'm not appreciating some vital distinction between law and equity. You seem to be acknowledging that there is no longer a distinction in the federal courts, so what is it that I'm not appreciating, then?

I never argued that the abolition of the distinction affected the "saving to suitors" clause. Alas, it doesn't give federal courts the competency to apply common law remedies generally in whatever cases they please. As I have already argued, the clause merely grants state courts concurrent jurisdiction with federal courts where a common law remedy is available, all in the specific context of admiralty/maritime cases. See the supreme court case that spells this out in detail!
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
Go fish the record.
There's nothing in the record. You cite a jurisdictional statute about maritime law and tell me that congress must provide the remedy of currency redemption based on that statute. It makes zero sense. You haven't explained the claim at all other than merely repeating the language and asserting that it supports you.

I want to know what currency redemption has to do with maritime/admiralty law, because that's what the jurisdictional grant is about; and I want to know what state courts retaining some jurisdiction where they have common law remedies available in the maritime/admiralty context has to do with currency redemption as well. The answer seems to be nothing.
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
The "saving to suitors" clause from the supreme court in 2001, in Lewis v. Lewis & Clark. You can read the discussion, but the first and last sentences make the point about the meaning:

"Federal courts have exclusive jurisdiction over admiralty and maritime claims, but the jurisdictional statute "sav[es] to suitors in all cases all other remedies to which they are otherwise entitled." 28 U.S.C. 1333(1).

...

Article III, 2, of the United States Constitution vests federal courts with jurisdiction over all cases of admiralty and maritime jurisdiction. Section 9 of the Judiciary Act of 1789 codified this grant of exclusive original jurisdiction, but "sav[ed] to suitors, in all cases, the right of a common law remedy, where the common law is competent to give it." Ch. 20, 9, 1 Stat. 77. In the intervening years, Congress has revised the language of the saving to suitors clause, but its substance has remained largely unchanged. See 28 U.S.C. 41(3) and 371 Third (1940 ed.) ("saving to suitors in all cases the right of a common-law remedy where the common law is competent to give it"); 28 U.S.C. 1333(1) (1946 ed., Supp. II) ("saving to the libellant or petitioner in every case any other remedy to which he is otherwise entitled"); Act of May 24, 1949, ch. 139, 79, 63 Stat. 101 ("saving to suitors in all cases all other remedies to which they are otherwise entitled"). The jurisdictional statute now states that "[t]he district courts shall have original jurisdiction, exclusive of the courts of the States, of ... any civil case of admiralty or maritime jurisdiction, saving to suitors in all cases all other remedies to which they are otherwise entitled." 28 U.S.C. 1333(1) (emphasis added).

What the drafters of the Judiciary Act intended in creating the saving to suitors clause is not entirely clear and has been the subject of some debate. See, e.g., 1 J. Goebel, Antecedents and Beginnings to 1801, History of the Supreme Court of the United States 474 (1971). Compare Casto, The Origins of Federal Admiralty Jurisdiction in an Age of Privateers, Smugglers, and Pirates, 37 Am. J. Legal Hist. 117, 139-149 (1993), with Gutoff, Original Understandings and the Private Law Origins of the Federal Admiralty Jurisdiction, A Reply to Professor Casto, 30 J. Mar. L. & Com. 361, 387-390 (1999). This Court theorized that the saving to suitors clause was "inserted, probably, from abundant caution, lest the exclusive terms in which the power is conferred on the District Courts might be deemed to have taken away the concurrent remedy which had before existed. This leaves the concurrent power where it stood at common law." New Jersey Steam Nav. Co. v. Merchants' Bank of Boston, 6 How. 344, 390 (1848).

In early cases we defined the limits of the clause. For instance, proceedings in rem were deemed outside the scope of the clause because an in rem action was not a common law remedy, but instead a proceeding under civil law. See, e.g., The Hine v. Trevor, 4 Wall. 555, 571-572 (1867); The Moses Taylor, 4 Wall. 411, 431 (1867). We later distinguished between the concept of rights and remedies. Chelentis v. Luckenbach S. S. Co., 247 U.S. 372, 383-384 (1918). In Chelentis, we held that maritime law governs a seaman's right to recovery against a vessel owner for his injuries aboard the vessel. We explained that "[t]he distinction between rights and remedies is fundamental. A right is a well founded or acknowledged claim; a remedy is the means employed to enforce a right or redress an injury." Id., at 384.

In a subsequent case, the Court defined the saving to suitors clause as a grant to state courts of in personam jurisdiction, concurrent with admiralty courts. Red Cross Line v. Atlantic Fruit Co., 264 U.S. 109, 123 (1924). We held enforceable an arbitration agreement between an owner of a steamship and a company that chartered the ship. We reasoned that agreements to arbitrate were valid under admiralty law, and that the State of New York had the power to confer on its courts the authority to compel parties to submit to arbitration. We explained that the state arbitration law merely provided a remedy in state court:

"The 'right of a common law remedy,' so saved to suitors, does not ... include attempted changes by the States in the substantive admiralty law, but it does include all means other than proceedings in admiralty which may be employed to enforce the right or to redress the injury involved. It includes remedies in pais, as well as proceedings in court; judicial remedies conferred by statute, as well as those existing at the common law; remedies in equity, as well as those enforceable in a court of law." Id., at 123-124.

Thus, the saving to suitors clause preserves remedies and the concurrent jurisdiction of state courts over some admiralty and maritime claims. See also Madruga v. Superior Court of Cal., County of San Diego, 346 U.S. 556, 560-561 (1954); Steamboat Co. v. Chase, 16 Wall. 522, 533-534 (1873)."

How is redeeming your currency an admiralty/maritime claim?
Oh sweet jesus he's quoting me shit over and over. Becaues Fed notes are negotiable instruments under admiralty/high seas/maritime/commerce
 
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