Impossible! The deficit is falling as well as unemployment Obama wrecking economy

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
This is laughable. Slavery existed in this country under that constitution until the 1860s. Constitutional amendments were passed expressly for the purpose of ensuring rights for both slaves and women. Why are they amending the constitution if it already provided those rights?
That Constitution? Which one do you use?
Ya the 13th outlawed Slavery. Alcohol was legal also before prohibition but the original document never specifically granted Alcohol inalienable rights...so you get it now?

Marijuana was never specifically outlawed as Alcohol was either. Which means it is perfectly lawful despite statutes that say the opposite. Technically speaking of course. Tell me California didn't embrace this philosophy successfully. Not specifically though I am not claiming this to be the basis of prop 215...just in general ya know.
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
UCC Article 3 explicitly excludes money from being a negotiable instrument. Period. So yes, absolutely, Federal Reserve Notes aren't negotiable instruments. By definition they aren't, and definitions are the most important thing, remember?

And where does your issuing authority describe a negotiable instrument, pray tell? You've certainly never shared that!
By definition they are not money either, you got nothing.

It's in the UCC far as I can tell you just fucked up calling them money. The redemption statute I cited confirms you are wrong.

From your own source:
(2) is payable on demand or at a definite time;

FRN's are totally negotiable..........they are "bills of exchange" and you and I are "holders in due course".

The US Notes are the ones I told and already showed you were non-negotiable lol.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
That Constitution? Which one do you use?
Ya the 13th outlawed Slavery. Alcohol was legal also before prohibition but the original document never specifically granted Alcohol inalienable rights...so you get it now?

Marijuana was never specifically outlawed as Alcohol was either. Which means it is perfectly lawful despite statutes that say the opposite. Technically speaking of course. Tell me California didn't embrace this philosophy successfully. Not specifically though I am not claiming this to be the basis of prop 215...just in general ya know.
The constitution that you're claiming was originally intended to bring freedom and rights to all, which explicitly acknowledges slavery in its command that slaves shall be counted as three fifths of a person; the document that everyone agreed permitted slavery and felt necessary to amend to state the contrary almost 100 years later.

The fact that they didn't say "Fuck women and fuck blacks" doesn't mean that wasn't the original intent or the effect. You need only look at historical reality to make that conclusion.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
By definition they are not money either, you got nothing.

It's in the UCC far as I can tell you just fucked up calling them money. The redemption statute I cited confirms you are wrong.

From your own source:
(2) is payable on demand or at a definite time;

FRN's are totally negotiable..........they are "bills of exchange" and you and I are "holders in due course".

The US Notes are the ones I told and already showed you were non-negotiable lol.
Which definition is that? According to Milam, Federal Reserve Notes are "lawful money." Why aren't they money under the UCC? And if Federal Reserve Notes aren't money under the UCC, then what are they calling money?
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
So you would be comfortable with Galen performing your heart surgery then, based on his ancient knowledge? You would prefer Galen over a modern surgeon with knowledge of modern medicine? Interesting.



The economy isn't a zero sum game. When you incentivize productive activities, you generate additional wealth. When you finance building or growing or production with fractional reserve money, you literally are financing something from nothing, by your own description of how it works. Your own position is that this would not be possible in an Austrian system.
Not sure what or who Galen is but if Galen has a higher success rate than modern medicine and I can afford it yep why not.

Production is already incentivized it needs no help. My incentive to plant veggies is for food. The incentive of ecigs is money. Manipulation stifles production. The economy is a plus sum game people make something out of nothing all the time with no help from aristocrat leeches. You think manipulation bakes more pies but the pies under this system have less and less filling. People can bake pies themselves because they produce the filling, not the manipulators.
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
Which definition is that? According to Milam, Federal Reserve Notes are "lawful money." Why aren't they money under the UCC? And if Federal Reserve Notes aren't money under the UCC, then what are they calling money?
Quote that without the quotes, seriously.

lawful money is in quotes here when referencing Milam v. U.S., 524 F.2d 629 http://www.federalreserve.gov/faqs/money_15197.htm

because...............................in Milam v. U.S., 524 F.2d 629 we find that

http://scholar.google.com/scholar_case?case=10240476430247207176&hl=en&as_sdt=2&as_vis=1&oi=scholarr


While we agree that golden eagles, double eagles and silver dollars were lovely to look at and delightful to hold, we must at the same time recognize that time marches on, and that even the time honored silver dollar is no longer available in its last bastion of defense, the brilliant casinos of the houses of chance in the state of Nevada. Appellant is entitled to redeem his note, but not in precious metal. Simply stated, we find his contentions frivolous.

Redemption upheld, why must you insist on failing by citing this case over and over?
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
The constitution that you're claiming was originally intended to bring freedom and rights to all, which explicitly acknowledges slavery in its command that slaves shall be counted as three fifths of a person; the document that everyone agreed permitted slavery and felt necessary to amend to state the contrary almost 100 years later.

The fact that they didn't say "Fuck women and fuck blacks" doesn't mean that wasn't the original intent or the effect. You need only look at historical reality to make that conclusion.
No they did not say fuck women and blacks they said We the People and all men created equal.......later to unequivocally include women and later to unequivocally include freed slaves as We the People.

Wrong again. The 3/5 ths clause was to keep slave owners from having too much say in Congress. Slave owners wanted slaves to count a full person obviously. The 3 fifths clause wasn't to acknowledge and condone slavery it was simply telling slave owners you can't have it both ways.

You might want to actually read the highest law of the land that you swore a dying oath to or was that not part of your serving in legislature?
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
Not sure what or who Galen is but if Galen has a higher success rate than modern medicine and I can afford it yep why not.

Production is already incentivized it needs no help. My incentive to plant veggies is for food. The incentive of ecigs is money. Manipulation stifles production. The economy is a plus sum game people make something out of nothing all the time with no help from aristocrat leeches. You think manipulation bakes more pies but the pies under this system have less and less filling. People can bake pies themselves because they produce the filling, not the manipulators.
A brilliant medical mind for his time, but you wouldn't want him performing your heart surgery. Why give up hundreds of years of modern medical knowledge in favor of antiquated human understandings?

What if you want to buy some new machinery? What if you want to buy some new fields? What if you want to build a cannery? Lending enables this kind of productive activity that would otherwise be impossible--it doesn't stifle it. 50 pies that are 5% as full as 1 pie that's 100% full are superior to that 1 pie.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
Quote that without the quotes, seriously.

lawful money is in quotes here when referencing Milam v. U.S., 524 F.2d 629 http://www.federalreserve.gov/faqs/money_15197.htm

because...............................in Milam v. U.S., 524 F.2d 629 we find that

http://scholar.google.com/scholar_case?case=10240476430247207176&hl=en&as_sdt=2&as_vis=1&oi=scholarr

While we agree that golden eagles, double eagles and silver dollars were lovely to look at and delightful to hold, we must at the same time recognize that time marches on, and that even the time honored silver dollar is no longer available in its last bastion of defense, the brilliant casinos of the houses of chance in the state of Nevada. Appellant is entitled to redeem his note, but not in precious metal. Simply stated, we find his contentions frivolous.

Redemption upheld, why must you insist on failing by citing this case over and over?
We already did this, but I'll be more than happy to do it again. The case is very short, so I'll highlight every relevant part:

Appellant has filed a substantial brief and an adequate reply brief and has argued his full share of allotted time in support for a demand that his $50.00 Federal Reserve Bank Note be redeemed in "lawful money" of the United States, which he says, in effect, must be gold or silver. Appellant refused appellees' tender of an equivalent value in Federal Reserve Notes.

Appellant's contentions, in our view, were put at rest close to a century ago in Juilliard v. Greenman, 110 U.S. 421, 448, 4 S.Ct. 122, 130, 28 L.Ed. 204 (1884), in which it was said:

". . . Under the power to borrow money on the credit of the United States, and to issue circulating notes for the money borrowed, its power to define the quality and force of those notes as currency is as broad as the like power over a metallic currency under the power to coin money and to regulate the value thereof. Under the two powers, taken together, Congress is authorized to establish a national currency, either in coin or in paper, and to make that currency lawful money for all purposes, as regards the national government or private individuals. . . ." [Emphasis supplied.]

The power so precisely described in Juilliard has been delegated to the Federal Reserve System under the provisions of 12 U.S.C. § 411. Appellant's challenge to the validity of this legislation is meritless. Cf. 31 U.S.C. § 392.

While we agree that golden eagles, double eagles and silver dollars were lovely to look at and delightful to hold, we must at the same time recognize that time marches on, and that even the time honored silver dollar is no longer available in its last bastion of defense, the brilliant casinos of the houses of chance in the state of Nevada.

Appellant is entitled to redeem his note, but not in precious metal. Simply stated, we find his contentions frivolous.

Judgment affirmed.

The guy argued that Federal Reserve Notes were not lawful money when he refused the tender of an equivalent value of Federal Reserve Notes. The court says that his argument was put to rest by the supreme court case they quote, which explicitly says that Congress can establish a national currency in paper and make it "lawful money" for all purposes. This power has been properly delegated to the Federal Reserve, and the guy's contentions to the contrary have no merit. The court concludes that he can redeem his note, but not in precious metals, only in "lawful money," which is Federal Reserve Notes, which is what was initially offered and refused.

How can you possibly read this case to say that Federal Reserve Notes aren't lawful money?
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
No they did not say fuck women and blacks they said We the People and all men created equal.......later to unequivocally include women and later to unequivocally include freed slaves as We the People.

Wrong again. The 3/5 ths clause was to keep slave owners from having too much say in Congress. Slave owners wanted slaves to count a full person obviously. The 3 fifths clause wasn't to acknowledge and condone slavery it was simply telling slave owners you can't have it both ways.

You might want to actually read the highest law of the land that you swore a dying oath to or was that not part of your serving in legislature?
Evidently you might want to read the constitution yourself, since that language about all men being created equal doesn't come from it. Of course, even that language is a total farce, since Jefferson and many other signers of that declaration owned slaves. Even in 1776 the hypocrisy of their language was being called out by the people who actually opposed slavery.

I seriously cannot believe you are trying to debate this. George Washington also owned slaves, along with 24 other delegates to the constitutional convention. 25 out of 55. Did they release their slaves when the constitution was enacted because everyone was included in their promises about the blessings of liberty? Did they let women vote because they were included too? No! You want to talk about original intent? 25 out of 55 delegates are slave owners, not even counting people who are otherwise friendly to the cause! No one was arguing that the constitution barred slavery, because it never would have been enacted otherwise!

I have never questioned what they said, only what they meant. All that matters is what they meant, because words are worthless and meaningless if they are ignored. You cannot question what the words meant because historical reality informs us. Slaves were freed, women were given the right to vote, black people were given their civil rights, and gay people will be given their civil rights because society evolved and our interpretation of the text change (or was intentionally altered by amendment), not because the framers originally intended it.
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
We already did this, but I'll be more than happy to do it again. The case is very short, so I'll highlight every relevant part:




The guy argued that Federal Reserve Notes were not lawful money when he refused the tender of an equivalent value of Federal Reserve Notes. The court says that his argument was put to rest by the supreme court case they quote, which explicitly says that Congress can establish a national currency in paper and make it "lawful money" for all purposes. This power has been properly delegated to the Federal Reserve, and the guy's contentions to the contrary have no merit. The court concludes that he can redeem his note, but not in precious metals, only in "lawful money," which is Federal Reserve Notes, which is what was initially offered and refused.

How can you possibly read this case to say that Federal Reserve Notes aren't lawful money?
Bzzzzzzzzz wrong try again.

"The guy", Milam argued the notes were not lawful and ONLY GOLD AND SILVER are lawful, then he refused the paper form of lawful money, which is a FRN with the obligation removed.

Its me that cant comprehend? Your source has lawful money in quotes like "lawful money" I literally asked you to find a source that doesn't do that. Where you find the definition the judges used to make that decision you will have done what I asked you to do and will have answered your own question and solved this matter.

Here's a hint: The definition of US notes I gave you earlier says lawful money without quotes.

How can you not possibly understand why it is in quotes??? How is it you cannot possibly understand that case was about redeeming FOR GOLD OR SILVER??? How is it that you cannot possibly understand the act of redemption was UPHELD??? How is it you cannot comprehend what you just posted as evidence FRN's are "lawful money" and not just lawful money? The 50 that were offered were "lawful money" that decision does not by any stretch of the twisted imagination say:

All FRN's are lawful money.

It's just not there sorry you don't understand.

It says plain as day in what you just quoted:

  • Appellant has filed a substantial brief and an adequate reply brief and has argued his full share of allotted time in support for a demand that his $50.00 Federal Reserve Bank Note be redeemed in "lawful money" of the United States, which he says, in effect, must be gold or silver





That says Milam wanted lawful money in the form of gold and silver.


  • Appellant refused appellees' tender of an equivalent value in Federal Reserve Notes.






That says Milam refused "lawful money". Which were the notes offered to him in exchange. What you don't understand is the Fed is required to make them non-negotiable upon demand...meaning they can't be fractionally lent. Milam refused his 50 but if he didn't the Fed would have to account for them in a very different way than elastic currency.

Milam wanted gold and silver which he can't have because the legal tender laws gave a time frame to redeem the old notes and certificates in specie....right? Cant get silver or gold for a FRN note anymore right?


  • Appellant's challenge to the validity of this legislation is meritless.





Appellant's challenge was to get gold or silver for FRN's. This is all that was denied in the decision.

The Fed agreed to exchange notes for notes and redeem it's right there in what you quoted. Maybe this is over your head but you should be able to put it together from what's here in this thread. Milam wanted to redeem and the Fed complied as per 12usc411 and not in specie according to the Legal Tender Laws. Then Milam refused the redemption that was offered which was FRN's with the obligation REMOVED making them NON NEGOTIABLE just like US NOTES.

Remember the Fed saying "US Notes serve no purposed that can't be served by FRN's?
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
Evidently you might want to read the constitution yourself, since that language about all men being created equal doesn't come from it. Of course, even that language is a total farce, since Jefferson and many other signers of that declaration owned slaves. Even in 1776 the hypocrisy of their language was being called out by the people who actually opposed slavery.

I seriously cannot believe you are trying to debate this. George Washington also owned slaves, along with 24 other delegates to the constitutional convention. 25 out of 55. Did they release their slaves when the constitution was enacted because everyone was included in their promises about the blessings of liberty? Did they let women vote because they were included too? No! You want to talk about original intent? 25 out of 55 delegates are slave owners, not even counting people who are otherwise friendly to the cause! No one was arguing that the constitution barred slavery, because it never would have been enacted otherwise!

I have never questioned what they said, only what they meant. All that matters is what they meant, because words are worthless and meaningless if they are ignored. You cannot question what the words meant because historical reality informs us. Slaves were freed, women were given the right to vote, black people were given their civil rights, and gay people will be given their civil rights because society evolved and our interpretation of the text change (or was intentionally altered by amendment), not because the framers originally intended it.
Whoops! That was the Declaration no? I wonder if it had any influence at all? lol

This was nothing more that you playing a race card sorry I call it like I see it.

That is bullshit what you say about Washington and Jefferson owning slaves. I think smoking cigs is evil and I smoked them .

You should find out about Anthony Johnson, he was a slave owner too that doesn't fit your race baiting argument.
 

twostrokenut

Well-Known Member
A brilliant medical mind for his time, but you wouldn't want him performing your heart surgery. Why give up hundreds of years of modern medical knowledge in favor of antiquated human understandings?

What if you want to buy some new machinery? What if you want to buy some new fields? What if you want to build a cannery? Lending enables this kind of productive activity that would otherwise be impossible--it doesn't stifle it. 50 pies that are 5% as full as 1 pie that's 100% full are superior to that 1 pie.
Point is I might want to use him that would be up to me at my discretion not a bureaucracy telling me because they know better. If his success rate was 99% for heart surgery and modern medicine's was 67% then ya I would use the antiquated human understanding. Of course it must not be I am just pointing out that you are eliminating freedom of choice from your example.

My oh my how did anyone buy land or build a cannery before nationalized private credit?
Oh dip, they saved their own capital. Which meant they were very efficient with it.
They really made it work for them because they had a lot to risk on it.
This is how the pies are baked.

What do people do with free money?
They are reckless with it as a little spoiled punk ass teenager is with his mom's hot rod.
They make risky decisions knowing they can default and everyone else would soak up the loss.
This is how pies lose nutritional value and eventually have none.
 

NoDrama

Well-Known Member
and gay people will be given their civil rights because society evolved and our interpretation of the text change (or was intentionally altered by amendment), not because the framers originally intended it.
What civil rights are gay people not getting at the moment?
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
Bzzzzzzzzz wrong try again.

"The guy", Milam argued the notes were not lawful and ONLY GOLD AND SILVER are lawful, then he refused the paper form of lawful money, which is a FRN with the obligation removed.
I just said his argument was that Federal Reserve Notes are not lawful money. You seem to agree.

The court says nothing about Federal Reserve Notes "with the obligation removed." I don't understand why you're inserting that--there's no basis for it in the opinion. Quote me otherwise.

Its me that cant comprehend? Your source has lawful money in quotes like "lawful money" I literally asked you to find a source that doesn't do that. Where you find the definition the judges used to make that decision you will have done what I asked you to do and will have answered your own question and solved this matter.
You've already seen it over and over again because it's literally inside the Milam opinion: Juilliard v. Greenman: "Congress is authorized to establish a national currency, either in coin or in paper, and to make that currency lawful money for all purposes..." No quotes.

The Milam court says this is the answer. According to the supreme court in the 1800s, congress has the power to establish a national paper currency and to make that currency lawful money. That's exactly what congress did. Federal Reserve Notes are lawful money, which is why they found Milam's contention's otherwise to be frivolous.

Here's a hint: The definition of US notes I gave you earlier says lawful money without quotes.

How can you not possibly understand why it is in quotes??? How is it you cannot possibly understand that case was about redeeming FOR GOLD OR SILVER??? How is it that you cannot possibly understand the act of redemption was UPHELD??? How is it you cannot comprehend what you just posted as evidence FRN's are "lawful money" and not just lawful money?
Here's your helpful legislative hint: when a court quotes directly from a source, they typically put the language in quotations. The phrase "lawful money" appears in 12 USC 411, which is the basis of Milam's suit. When you put statutory language in quotations, it merely means that you're conveying the literal text of the statute. It's in quotes because it's the phrase in the statute that's at dispute!

This case certainly is about redeeming gold and silver, sure, because the court makes clear the idea is ridiculous. But the basis of that case is Milam's challenge to the fact that Federal Reserve Notes are lawful money within the meaning of 12 USC 411. The court dismisses this by citing the supreme court precedent I quoted above, which says congress can establish a paper currency and make it lawful money. The case is necessarily about this issue at well.

The 50 that were offered were "lawful money" that decision does not by any stretch of the twisted imagination say:

All FRN's are lawful money.

It's just not there sorry you don't understand.
You're really reading way too much into the quotations. The statute doesn't distinguish between lawful money and "lawful money," and neither does the court. If you think the phrases below make the case otherwise, let's walk through why they don't.

It says plain as day in what you just quoted:

  • Appellant has filed a substantial brief and an adequate reply brief and has argued his full share of allotted time in support for a demand that his $50.00 Federal Reserve Bank Note be redeemed in "lawful money" of the United States, which he says, in effect, must be gold or silver[/quote

That says Milam wanted lawful money in the form of gold and silver.
Yes, I agree so far. This sentence says that Milam demanded his Federal Reserve Notes be redeemed in "lawful money," by which he meant gold or silver.


  • Appellant refused appellees' tender of an equivalent value in Federal Reserve Notes

That says Milam refused "lawful money". Which were the notes offered to him in exchange. What you don't understand is the Fed is required to make them non-negotiable upon demand...meaning they can't be fractionally lent. Milam refused his 50 but if he didn't the Fed would have to account for them in a very different way than elastic currency.
It doesn't say he refused "lawful money," it says he refused an equivalent value in Federal Reserve Notes. In the first sentence you quoted, "lawful money" is used in reference to Milam's argument that it must be gold and silver. Accordingly, the court notes that Milam refused a tender of equivalent value in Federal Reserve Notes, because they weren't lawful money, which he interpreted to require gold or silver.

Regardless, what's your basis for saying the Fed is "required to make them non-negotiable upon demand...meaning they can't be fractionally lent"? Statute? Court case? Show me the money.

And again, what's your statutory or court basis for saying the Fed would have to account for them very differently? This decision says absolutely nothing about that.

Milam wanted gold and silver which he can't have because the legal tender laws gave a time frame to redeem the old notes and certificates in specie....right? Cant get silver or gold for a FRN note anymore right?


  • Appellant's challenge to the validity of this legislation is meritless.

    Appellant's challenge was to get gold or silver for FRN's. This is all that was denied in the decision.​


I absolutely agree that Milam's argument was that only gold and silver were lawful money under the statute. What you don't seem to understand is that the question of whether Federal Reserve Notes are lawful money is necessarily answered in that decision. The court cites the supreme court case saying that congress can issue paper currency and make it lawful money; they refer to the Federal Reserve and say that it properly exercises this government power. Thus Federal Reserve Notes, our paper currency, are lawful money.

When the statute says redemption must be in lawful money, tender of equivalent value in Federal Reserve Notes constitutes redemption in lawful money. This is exactly the conclusion that Milam disputed in arguing that only gold or silver could be lawful money--he necessarily argues that Federal Reserve Notes are not. The court calls this claim frivolous; the tender of Federal Reserve Notes for Federal Reserve Notes satisfied the statute.

The Fed agreed to exchange notes for notes and redeem it's right there in what you quoted. Maybe this is over your head but you should be able to put it together from what's here in this thread. Milam wanted to redeem and the Fed complied as per 12usc411 and not in specie according to the Legal Tender Laws. Then Milam refused the redemption that was offered which was FRN's with the obligation REMOVED making them NON NEGOTIABLE just like US NOTES.

Remember the Fed saying "US Notes serve no purposed that can't be served by FRN's?
We agree on the facts up to where you say the redemption was Federal Reserve Notes with the obligation removed that are non-negotiable. The court case says nothing about any of that. All the court says is that Milam tried to redeem his $50 note and was given a $50 note back. Period. The court says the statute entitles him to do this and doesn't require gold or silver. Period.

There's nothing about removing obligations and making notes non-negotiable. Absolutely nothing.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
Whoops! That was the Declaration no? I wonder if it had any influence at all? lol

This was nothing more that you playing a race card sorry I call it like I see it.

That is bullshit what you say about Washington and Jefferson owning slaves. I think smoking cigs is evil and I smoked them .

You should find out about Anthony Johnson, he was a slave owner too that doesn't fit your race baiting argument.
What race card is it that you think I'm playing...?

So you're a hypocrite then. So you don't actually believe what you say. That's exactly my point. The fact that they promised men the blessings of liberty doesn't mean that they actually granted them those blessings; indeed, we know for a fact they didn't. The constitution did not end slavery, which means it must not have meant liberty for all as you're trying to suggest.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
Point is I might want to use him that would be up to me at my discretion not a bureaucracy telling me because they know better. If his success rate was 99% for heart surgery and modern medicine's was 67% then ya I would use the antiquated human understanding. Of course it must not be I am just pointing out that you are eliminating freedom of choice from your example.
You have a choice. You can convert your dollars into precious metals at your pleasure. We can turn it right back around--why should you force your choice on everyone else?

My oh my how did anyone buy land or build a cannery before nationalized private credit?
Oh dip, they saved their own capital. Which meant they were very efficient with it.
They really made it work for them because they had a lot to risk on it.
This is how the pies are baked.
Most people farmed to survive. That's your answer. Work really hard all your life and still have little to show for it--that's been the reality for most people in human history. Hard money never knew the comfortable plenty that we know today.

What do people do with free money?
They are reckless with it as a little spoiled punk ass teenager is with his mom's hot rod.
They make risky decisions knowing they can default and everyone else would soak up the loss.
This is how pies lose nutritional value and eventually have none.
People are selfish and reckless. They probably always will be. Hard money didn't eliminate bubbles or economic cycles; indeed, they were worse and more severe, as we discussed. We have a lot of wealth and we waste a lot of wealth worshiping consumerism that didn't exist in the hard money days. The fact that we have more wealth now is what enables our rampant consumerism.
 

tokeprep

Well-Known Member
How can you lend that which you do not have?
That's why it's manipulation. Banking plays on timing--people don't need all of the money they have on deposit all at the same time. Managing cash demand with reserves, you can invest the rest of the money.
 
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