Rob Roy
Well-Known Member
It should be obvious, a person who doesn't have the capacity to consent, cannot. A person who does have the capacity, can. It should also be obvious that the age different people reach that capacity varies, but generally speaking the younger a person is the less likely they will have the capacity.
Also, you never answered my question about why different plantations make legal statutes which vary in ages. It's kind of obvious you can'tanswer.
If there ISN'T a universal age, couldn't it be said that a law which "protects" some people without the capacity to consent could also deprive some people of the same age of their right to self determine if they do have the capacity to consent?