This is an illegitimate question
"Who can give X when they don't have X?"
It's leading. In a representative democracy, elected officials are delegated said rights once they're publicly elected. Before that, they do not have that right.
So, nobody can delegate a right they do not possess (me/you), but publicly elected officials are delegated said rights by power of election
Property is something owned by someone
Anyone can own property
No, the question is not illegitimate, but your answer is, since it lacks any logical foundation or consistency with the meanings of words.
If a person doesn't possess something and they join with many others who also don't possess that something as well, the aggregate of all of their zeroes remains at zero. That doesn't change simply because, "government".
The existence of individual people precedes government, therefore individual people would have to at some point possess a particular right in order to create an entity which they endow with that same right.
What you are really trying to prove (and failing at it) is that "government rights" (oxymoronic) can be conjured up from nothing and that because government is involved that logic can magically be suspended. Sounds a lot like Santa Claus or the Easter Bunny.
Individual people have rights, only THAT person can delegate their rights, on a voluntary and consenting basis, if another person or group of persons has the ability to delegate your rights without your consent, how can they still be rights?
If property is something owned by someone, then the characteristics of ownership would apply correct? Meaning, the owner would have the right to determine the use / nonuse of the subject property.
Would you agree that characteristic is what makes owned property, property and not something else ?